Greetings,
I have a naïve question regarding Cox regression with time dependent
covariates.
When I include a covariate (whether it changes the value over time or has
only single fixed value) as a time dependent variable
in the Cox regression model, is it correct to state that the
proportionality assumption of the Cox regression model
will always automatically be violated? I appreciate your answers.
Kelly
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KyungAh( Kelly) Im
130 Desoto St. 127 Parran Hall.
Epidemiology Data Center
Graduate School of Public Health
University of Pittsburgh
PA 15261
PHONE:(412) 624- 4612 FAX: (412) 624- 3775
Email: Im@edc.pitt.edu
http://www.edc.gsph.pitt.edu
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