| To: | "'s-news@lists.biostat.wustl.edu'" <s-news@lists.biostat.wustl.edu> |
|---|---|
| Subject: | Re: pvalues from t-distribution |
| From: | "Lucke, Joseph F" <LUCKE@uthscsa.edu> |
| Date: | Wed, 10 Dec 2003 15:43:10 -0600 |
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Using the t-distribution to 'standardize' scores to a 't-score" is a common practice in educational and psychological statistics. However, the t-score does not have a t-distribution. The discrepancy is large for large 't-scores' and small samples. Chen, G., & Adatia, A. (1997). Independence and $t$ distribution. The American Statistician, 51(2), 176--177. JSTOR Stable URL: http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0003-1305%28199705%2951%3A2%3C176%3AIATD%3E2.0.CO%3B2-X Joe -----Original Message-----
Ela, Sliwerska, Ela wrote: > Hi all!
(Please use an informative subject line.) If "tscore" is part of a data.frame (say, "DF") then you should do the
2 * (1 - pnorm(abs(DF$tscore))) But why not use a t-distribution rather than a Z-distribution? What are
2 * (1 - pt(abs(DF$tscore), degrees.of.freedom)) Hope this helps, Sundar --------------------------------------------------------------------
-----Original Message-----
Ela, Sliwerska, Ela wrote: > Hi all!
(Please use an informative subject line.) If "tscore" is part of a data.frame (say, "DF") then you should do the
2 * (1 - pnorm(abs(DF$tscore))) But why not use a t-distribution rather than a Z-distribution? What are
2 * (1 - pt(abs(DF$tscore), degrees.of.freedom)) Hope this helps, Sundar --------------------------------------------------------------------
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